The heuristic is like this. "blEst" is a predicative. blEsld" is attributive. For more, check this quora discussion where I participated. http://www.quora.com/English-language/Why-doesnt-crooked-rhyme-with-cooked
I would expect whether they are predicative or attributive, the pronunciations are the same. Examples such as "He is blessed." and "He is a blessed person". There is no difference at all.
Nevertheless in religious prayers, there are many examples starting with "Blessed are ..." or the word "Blessed" followed with somebody's name. I have heard the former says "blEsld". So is the word "
Observations (phenomena) are not explanations. The so-called rules that people sell are mere generalized observations. So, you can always raise two kinds of questions for such observations: (a) why that is so? (b) point out exceptions that invalidate such generalizations. If you agree to this much, this is what I say about your question.
1. In "Blessed are those ...", 'blessed' is an att
You said that 'In "Blessed are those ...", 'blessed' is an attributive, thanks to a virtual (hidden) functor (noun) right after "blessed"'. Then you must be suggesting that the word "blessed" in your example is pronounced as one syllable according to the rule you suggested. However I often hear people say it with 2 syllables in the church. So which one is right? I am not asking for a rule or a th
Thanks! That's what I heard all the time. I am a Catholic and live in Australia.
Though there are lots of exception to rules in English language I have been trying to establish some rules for the way to pronounce them because I am very particular about language but I fail. Though I would more likely say what most people say in order to be understood easily I would still like to find