How does this use of 'has been of no benefits' works? What is the grammar behind such expression?
I have a piece of sentence where the use of 'of' in 'has been of' make it difficult to understand and to use:
The sentence is:
"It is often argued that the act of sending a man to the moon has been of no benefits to the common people."
Could anyone explain it?
Top answer
fidaforever explain it It seems it should be "has been of no benefit to the common people". This is simply the present perfect of "is of no benefit to the common people". "be of" is a substitute for "be" + an adjective, so the quoted expression is equivalent to "has not been beneficial to the common people".
- fidaforever explain it It seems it should be "has been of no benefit to the common people".
- This is simply the present perfect of "is of no benefit to the common people".
- "be of" is a substitute for "be" + an adjective, so the quoted expression is equivalent to "has not been beneficial to the common people".
- See CJ
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fidaforeverexplain it
It seems it should be "has been of no benefit to the common people".
This is simply the present perfect of "is of no benefit to the common people".
"be of" is a substitute for "be" + an adjective, so the quoted expression is equivalent to "has not been beneficial to the common people".
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