To my ear, these represent no more than personal inflection. When I first opened this question, I assumed it would be about the pronunciation of the middle syllable, which is schwa, at best. I think most natives pronounce it without the schwa, even, making it strictly a two-syllable word.
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CharmYouWhich do you think is more proper? /'fæm?li/ with /æ/ or /'fem?li/ with /e/?/'fæm?li/ with /æ/. This is definitely the "more proper" version.
CalifJimprobably because of the following /m/Thanks for pointing this out. There're many words like "family" where a /e/ is used to replace /æ/. After you pointing out the /m/, I guess all /æm/ can often be pronounced as /e?m/. For example, I often hear the word "example" pronounced as /?g'zempl?/ instead of /?g'zæmpl?/, and my foreign teachers (both a boy a
CharmYouThere're many words like "family" which a /e/ is used to replace /æ/. After you pointing out the /m/, I guess all /æm/ can often be pronounced as /e?m/. For example, I often hear the word "example" pronounced as /?g'zempl?/ instead of /?g'zæmpl?/, and my foreign teachers (both a boy and a girl) from the USA often pronounce grammar as /'grem?/ instead of /'græm?/.