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Coloraday Posted 17 years ago
Grammar
Holinshed's chronicles
The king cast down his warder,and the heralds cried,'Ho,ho!'Then the king caused their spears to be taken from them,and commanded them to repair again to their chairs ,where they remained two long hours ,while the King and his council deliberately consulted what order was best to be had in so weighty a cause.
Why is To be had (which is a passive form I think) used here?Was such a usage common in that time(sixteenth century)?
Why is To be had (which is a passive form I think) used here?Was such a usage common in that time(sixteenth century)?
Top answer
You are correct - "had" is passive voice. (stative or adjectival passive, following the infinitive "to be") Passive voice existed in the earliest forms of English, and was more prevalent in Middle English than modern English, according to this brief history .
- You are correct - "had" is passive voice.
- (stative or adjectival passive, following the infinitive "to be") Passive voice existed in the earliest forms of English, and was more prevalent in Middle English than modern English, according to this brief history .
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3 Answers
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You are correct - "had" is passive voice. (stative or adjectival passive, following the infinitive "to be")
Passive voice existed in the earliest forms of English, and was more prevalent in Middle English than modern English, according to this brief history.
Passive voice existed in the earliest forms of English, and was more prevalent in Middle English than modern English, according to this brief history.
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Hi Alphecca.I cudgel my brain over using have in passive. to be had=to have. Are they that way?
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http://www.phrases.org.uk/bulletin_board/24/messages/82.html
By the way.
By the way.
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