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Gwuc4 Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Hi! A quick question

Is there any difference between the meanings of these two statements:

1.) The data can then be accessed over the internet whenever and wherever needed.
2.) The data THEN CAN be accessed over the internet whenever and wherever needed.

Is there any difference in meaning when "can" and "then" are flipped? To me, the second sentence inplied that the data was previously inaccessible. I should mention that this sentence was taken from a recent "Economist" magazine article and the first sentence is the original version.

Also is it safe to say that this is one of the rare examples in which an otherwise correct sentence has no subject? Just want to make sure ("data" here is a direct object, "accessed" is the verb/action, and "internet" is simply an indirect object).

Many thanks in advance!
  

Top answer

gwuc4 Also is it safe to say that this is one of the rare examples in which an otherwise correct sentence has no subject? On the contrary it is dangerous to say such things! The sentence is in the passive voice.

  • gwuc4 Also is it safe to say that this is one of the rare examples in which an otherwise correct sentence has no subject?
  • On the contrary it is dangerous to say such things!
  • The sentence is in the passive voice.
  • can be accessed .
  • data is the subject.
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2 Answers
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gwuc4Also is it safe to say that this is one of the rare examples in which an otherwise correct sentence has no subject?
On the contrary it is dangerous to say such things! The sentence is in the passive voice. can be accessed. data is the subject.
gwuc4Is there any difference in meaning when "can" and "then" are
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Thanks for the prompt response!
CalifJimThe sentence is in the passive voice. can be accessed. data is the subject.
The data isn't the actor though. It is merely being acted upon by some unnamed actor. It's being accessed. Shouldn't it still be the direct object in this case? Also, by definition a passive sentence is a sentence where

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