Help with the "Perfect Indefinite tense"

0It is the same as the 01i00present or past perfect02i00: that tense which denotes action which began in the past and is still in progress, or which began earlier in the past up till a time later in the past.0-

0Thank you02br
02br
00JAY0-

The first modern instance of the term "perfect indefinite tense" occurs in the Jehovah's Witnesses 1950 New World Translation of the Bible in the footnotes of John 8:58. Once it was pointed out that there is no such Greek tense, the Watchtower leadership states that it refers to an English tense. This is to be able to support their variant translation of "ego eimi" as "I have been" in oppos

The perfect definite uses have or has; the indefinite does not. I have been sledding=perf. def.; I sledded=perf. indefinite.

Re John 8:58 and the "I AM" or "I have been" the Jehovah's Witnesses do not say that it is in the "perfect indefinite tense" suggesting that this tense refers to the Greek. They said that it is "rendered in the perfect indefinite tense". Rendered means translated. So it is translated into the English in the perfect indefinite tense. They did not say "from" the perfect indefinite tense w