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Anonymous Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Hello. My name is Angelina. I have a question. (I can't to login. I have a problem with registration)

What's the difference in meaning? - " to be in want of ...." and "to want for ..."
EX. "I am in want of money" and "I want for money".
  

Top answer

Both have the same meaning(s) and both are a bit dated.

  • Both have the same meaning(s) and both are a bit dated.
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7 Answers
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Both have the same meaning(s) and both are a bit dated.
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Thank you for your answer.

So. Maybe,  I'll use "to need". What about " I need a money" and "He never needs for friends" Is it correct?
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AnonymousSo. Maybe, I'll use "to need". What about " I need a money" and "He never needs for friends" Is it correct?
"To need" is fine. We also use "to be in need."

He never needs/wants for friends is correct.

"Money" is not a countable. Use "I need [some] money." "I need a loan."
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AvangiHe never needs/wants for friends is correct.
I think "he never needs friends" is misleading. If you mean to say that he always has enough friends, I would sugggest "He never lacks friends." "He never needs friends" sounds to me as though he never has friends, because he never needs or wants them.

"He never wants for friends"
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khoffI think "he never needs friends" is misleading.
I agree. I wouldn't use it as a substitute for "he never needs for friends."

By the way, I believe that both "never needs for X" and "never wants for X" are a bit dated.

Best regards, - A.
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Thank you very much.  Your answer is very useful for me. Now, I can see a difference in meanings.
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Thank you.Emotion: smile
And now I  see  I need to learn about a countable. 

Angelina

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