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Hello, everybody! My student asked me a question:

Do native speakers say it in this way?

1) I haven't seen you for a long time.

2) I havn't seen you for long.

3) I haven't seen you for ages.

Can the verb SEE mean an action lasting for a period? (I don't quite think so.) If it doesn't mean an action lasting for a period, how can we use "for a long time" or "for ages"?

Many Chinese students say it as 1). Is it right? Why?

According to Oxford Dictionary, "for a long time " is usually used in positive sentences,while "for long" is used in questions or negatives. It means the sentences above are ungrammatical. How can we distinguish "for a long time" and "for long"?Can you explain these phenomena? Thanks a lot!

CalifJim · Accepted Answer

First of all, I don't think you need such a large font size! You don't need to create a highway billboard!

Native speakers say the first or the third, not the second. So yes, 1) is right. Why? Because. It is right for the same reason that 2 + 3 = 5. It is correct to say it that way.

"see" is not being used to mean an action lasting for a long period in these sentences. It is rather the absence of action which lasts a long time. When I say I haven't seen you [[in/for] a long time /[in/for] ages], I mean that a long time has passed between the last time I had the experience of seeing you and the time of my saying so.

"for long" is of limited usefulness, typically in the future and in the negative. Examples:

They’re having a sale at Macy’s. Everything will be sold at half price. But not for long.
This item won’t be available for long, so you’d better hurry.
The world’s record for the high jump might not last for long. There are quite a few good athletes who may break the record this year.

I hope that helps.

CJ

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