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Marix998 Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

He watched his state´s attorney get beat up in his court this week.

Hello,

can anybody answer me why in below sentece is used get. Is it possible to put there got?

Or it might be causative constructions.

He watched his state´s attorney get beat up in his court this week.

Thanks

M
  

Top answer

The object clause is present time relative to the action in the main clause (watching) - the tense of the object clause never changes from present because it is a relative time, not an absolute time: Yesterday I watched the poor boys beg for coins. (past) Every day I watch the poor boys beg for coins. (present) Tomorrow I will watch the poor boys beg for coins.

— AlpheccaStars

  • The object clause is present time relative to the action in the main clause (watching) - the tense of the object clause never changes from present because it is a relative time, not an absolute time: Yesterday I watched the poor boys beg for coins.
  • (past) Every day I watch the poor boys beg for coins.
  • (present) Tomorrow I will watch the poor boys beg for coins.
  • (future) This applies to verbs of perception.
  • ) I heard the angels sing.
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4 Answers
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The object clause is present time relative to the action in the main clause (watching) - the tense of the object clause never changes from present because it is a relative time, not an absolute time:

Yesterday I watched the poor boys beg for coins. (past)

Every day I watch the poor boys beg for coins. (present)

Tomorrow I will watch the poor boys beg for co
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watch takes a bare infinitive after an intervening noun phrase.

... watch him go ...

... watch the man work ...

... watched the children play ...

get takes a past participle.

... get lost ...

... get postponed ...

... get broken ...

That's how you get: ... watched (the attorney) get beat ... [beat is the
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I would add it also applies to verbs such as: make, let, have, (help). Am I right?

M
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marix998I would add it also applies to verbs such as: make, let, have, (help). Am I right?
If "it" is the governing of a bare infinitive with an intervening noun phrase, then yes. If "it" is the governing of a past participle, then no, except for "have", which is the auxiliary for forming the perfect tenses.
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