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Johnson13 Posted 13 years ago
Grammar
He said it would rain and so it did.
Could you correct me if I am wrong?
When we use SO to mean ALSO, a pronoun or common or proper noun, we MUST use inversion:
eg from Oxford:
Times have changed and so have I.
‘I prefer the first version.’ ‘So do we.’
But when we use SO to refer back to something that has already been mentioned, we MUST NOT use inversion:
eg He said it would rain and so it did. (This is what I heard from an exchange student.)
My questions are:
1. Is it grammatical to change the above sentence to IT DID SO? Will this change change the meaning of the sentence.
2. If IT is replaced by a noun, rather than a pronoun, such as Tom, do all the things apply in the same way as when it is IT?
When we use SO to mean ALSO, a pronoun or common or proper noun, we MUST use inversion:
eg from Oxford:
Times have changed and so have I.
‘I prefer the first version.’ ‘So do we.’
But when we use SO to refer back to something that has already been mentioned, we MUST NOT use inversion:
eg He said it would rain and so it did. (This is what I heard from an exchange student.)
My questions are:
1. Is it grammatical to change the above sentence to IT DID SO? Will this change change the meaning of the sentence.
2. If IT is replaced by a noun, rather than a pronoun, such as Tom, do all the things apply in the same way as when it is IT?
Top answer
Johnson13 1. Is it grammatical to change the above sentence to IT DID SO? Will this change change the meaning of the sentence.
- Johnson13 1.
- Is it grammatical to change the above sentence to IT DID SO?
- Will this change change the meaning of the sentence.
- Yes.
- No.
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1 Answers
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Johnson131. Is it grammatical to change the above sentence to IT DID SO? Will this change change the meaning of the sentence.Yes. No.
Johnson132. If IT is replaced by a noun, rather than a pronoun, such as Tom, do all the things apply in the same way as when it is IT?Yes.
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