And if they have the same meaning, what about these? Perhaps it's to do something with "literal" and "figurative" meanings.
1) He lost his fortune to gambling.
2) He lost his fortune due to gambling.
Thanks for your time and effort,
1) He lost his heart to her.
2) He lost his heart due to her.
I think in both cases I would describe the differences as shifts in emphasis, rather than differences in meaning, though looking for a moment at the second set of sentences, the sentence "he lost his heart due to her", might have different meaning entirely. With regard to the sentences concerning gambling: both have the same overall meaning, but after reading the first, it is almost as if the fortune was handed over to gambling and it is 'gambling' that now owns the fortune. The second sentence is more matter-of-fact.
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
Mr. Tom1) He lost his heart to her.#! is a set phrase or idiom. That's why #2 does not make sense
2) He lost his heart due to her.