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Anonymous Posted 11 years ago
Grammar

He has started to ...since

(1) He has started to teach math since last year.
(2) He has taught math since last year.

Is (1) natural English?
If so, what's the difference in meaning between (1) and (2)?
  

Top answer

#1 is not correct, because there is a specific time he started to teach. #2 is perfect English. You could also say 'has been teaching' with no difference in meaning.

— Philip

  • #1 is not correct, because there is a specific time he started to teach.
  • #2 is perfect English.
  • You could also say 'has been teaching' with no difference in meaning.
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4 Answers
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#1 is not correct, because there is a specific time he started to teach. #2 is perfect English. You could also say 'has been teaching' with no difference in meaning.
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AnonymousIs (1) natural English?
No.
(1) He started to teach math last year.
(2) He has taught math since last year.

#1 focuses on when he started. It does not clearly tell us if he is still teaching math.
#2 focuses on the length of time. It clearly tells us that he is still teaching math.
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Thank you.
I do agree that (1) sounds unnatural.
But sometimes I do stumble upon the 'has started + since' combination as shown
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AnonymousBut sometimes I do stumble upon the 'has started + since' combination as shown here . Are these examples any different from (1)?
Are the examples you stumbled on different from (1)?

Even though you haven't given a single example, I'd say the ones you stumbled on must be different in some way. Doesn't that seem logical?
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