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SweetFreedom Posted 12 years ago
Grammar
He has married for three years
I wonder why (1) is grammatically wrong while (2) correct? Aren't they both present perfect tense?
(1) He has married for three years.
(2) He has been married for three years.
(1) He has married for three years.
(2) He has been married for three years.
Top answer
In "He has married", the word "married" is a verb, describing an act done at one point in time. It cannot be done "for three years". g.
- In "He has married", the word "married" is a verb, describing an act done at one point in time.
- It cannot be done "for three years".
- g.
- "He has cut his own hair for three years"), but getting married does not count as a habitual action.
- In "He has been married for three years", the word "married" is an adjective, describing a state.
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1 Answers
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In "He has married", the word "married" is a verb, describing an act done at one point in time. It cannot be done "for three years". It is possible for present perfect to be used for habitual repeated actions over time (e.g. "He has cut his own hair for three years"), but getting married does not count as a habitual action.
In "He has been married for three years", the word "married" is a
In "He has been married for three years", the word "married" is a
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