He has died vs He died
(1) He has died.
(2) He died.
The (1) is in the present perfect tense the (2) in the simple past.
The act of the death occurred in the past i.e., not now. So, both sentences refer to the real past event, and, in the sense, they describe the same situation. If so, my question is:
Is there any difference, except the grammatical one, between those sentences?
Top answer
anonymous Is there any difference, except the grammatical one, between those sentences? Sure. It is the difference made by the tenses.
- anonymous Is there any difference, except the grammatical one, between those sentences?
- Sure.
- It is the difference made by the tenses.
- "
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anonymousIs there any difference, except the grammatical one, between those sentences?
Sure. It is the difference made by the tenses. A news announcer in 2014 would have said, "Ariel Sharon has died." He could not have said, "Ariel Sharon died."
0anonymousTheact of thedeath occurred in the past i.e., not now.
OK. So that makes (1) impossible. That's how we handle the verb "die".
Said today:
Shakespeare died in 1616. OK
Shakespeare has died. No
Said by one of his friends living later in 1616:
Shakespeare has died. OK
0
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