(1) He has been a victim of fraud.
(2) He has been a victim of fraud on several occasions.
(3) He has been very helpful.
(4) He has been very helpful on several occasions.
What is the difference between (1) and (2), (3) and (4)?
Here I'm trying to understand the difference between "has been + noun" and "has been + adjective". Do they work the same way?
I know that "has been + adj" indicates a state. But does that state necessarily start at an earlier point in time and end now? Can it refer to a state or a period of time that ended in the past and not "now"?
What about "has been +noun"? Does it also indicate a state/a period of time? Or does it refer to a point in time?
Rizan Malik Do they work the same way? Yes. The complement can be a noun or adjective.
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
Rizan MalikDo they work the same way?
Yes.
The complement can be a noun or adjective.
You are asking about the present perfect of "be."
The action may be complete, or the state finished, or maybe not. It depends on the context and any adverb expressions that may be in the sentence.
He has been single for many years. (He is still sing