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Teo Posted 21 years ago
Grammar
He has been standing up for half an hour.
1. He has been standing up for half an hour.
2. He has been sitting down for half an hour.
Are the above sentences acceptable?
Thank you very much for your reply.
2. He has been sitting down for half an hour.
Are the above sentences acceptable?
Thank you very much for your reply.
Top answer
Teo 1. He has been standing up for half an hour. 2.
- Teo 1.
- He has been standing up for half an hour.
- 2.
- He has been sitting down for half an hour.
- Are the above sentences acceptable?
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10 Answers
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TeoI would eliminate the 'up' and 'down'. They are used to describe the actual process of changing position.
1. He has been standing up for half an hour.
2. He has been sitting down for half an hour.
Are the above sentences acceptable?
Thank you very much for your reply.
00
Yes. "Stand up" & "sit down" refer to actions, but which are very short in themselves.
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Philip1. I want you standing up when the judge enters the court. YTeoI would eliminate the 'up' and 'down'. They are used to describe the actual process of changing position.
The differences are fairly small and subtle, but here's what I feel.
00
Hi,
1. He has been standing up for half an hour.
2. He has been sitting down for half an hour.
Both of these seem fine to me. I think 'stand up, sit down' can be used for an action and also to describe a state, as can the words 'stand, sit'.
I think the function of these words
1. He has been standing up for half an hour.
2. He has been sitting down for half an hour.
Both of these seem fine to me. I think 'stand up, sit down' can be used for an action and also to describe a state, as can the words 'stand, sit'.
I think the function of these words
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1. I want you standing up when the judge enters the court. You never stand up when the judge comes in. This time you'd better remember. To me, there's a hint of exasperation.
2. I want you to stand up when the judge enters the court. A pretty neutral way to say it.
3. I want you to be standing up when the judge enters the court. I want you to stand up befo
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1. He has moved to London for two years.
2. He has gone to London for two years.
How about these two sentences? Are they acceptable?
Thank you very much for your reply.
2. He has gone to London for two years.
How about these two sentences? Are they acceptable?
Thank you very much for your reply.
00
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1. He has moved to London for two years.
A professor of English says that #1 is semantically odd.
The correct version is
It has been/ is two years since he moved to London.
Do you agree?
Thank you very much for your reply.
A professor of English says that #1 is semantically odd.
The correct version is
It has been/ is two years since he moved to London.
Do you agree?
Thank you very much for your reply.
00
Dear sir,
We may say «he has moved to London for two years». It means he has moved to London and he will stay in London for two years.
We may also say «It has been/ is two years since he moved to London». It means he has already lived in London for two years.
There is a difference, I think.
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Hi,
He has moved to London for two years.
The correct version is
It has been/ is two years since he moved to London.
Do you agree? No. It depends on the meaning you have in mind. Your scenario is that he moved to London two years ago
He has moved to London for two years.
The correct version is
It has been/ is two years since he moved to London.
Do you agree? No. It depends on the meaning you have in mind. Your scenario is that he moved to London two years ago
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