No difference in meaning, really. The past perfect roots the failure distinctly earlier than the telling of it, but it's not necessary here.
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Mister MicawberNo difference in meaning, really. The past perfect roots the failure distinctly earlier than the telling of it, but it's not necessary here.Thanks, Mister and Clive.
I would use failed personally cause' had failed makes it should older than it is Only my opinion ![]()