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Guest Posted 22 years ago
Grammar

he don't, ain't

Henry James uses "he don't" and other non-standard forms. The constuction does not make sense to me - "he do not". How did this usage arise? I remember my mother using that form - she was schooled in early 20th Century - and, as I learned differently, I tried to correct her usage and was told it was correct when she went to school.

Where can I look for more information??

Thank you.
  

Top answer

English used to have many regional dialects, and the use of "he does" instead of "he do" was not universal. Also, to pronounce "is" as "ais" and so to get "he ain't" as a contraction of "he aisn't" was a matter of dialect. You also sometimes see amn't.

— Bratannia

  • English used to have many regional dialects, and the use of "he does" instead of "he do" was not universal.
  • Also, to pronounce "is" as "ais" and so to get "he ain't" as a contraction of "he aisn't" was a matter of dialect.
  • You also sometimes see amn't.
  • " These things are somehow enjoyable.
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1 Answers
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English used to have many regional dialects, and the use of "he does" instead of "he do" was not universal. Also, to pronounce "is" as "ais" and so to get "he ain't" as a contraction of "he aisn't" was a matter of dialect. You also sometimes see amn't.

In Jamaican or US "ebonics," even today you can dialectically correctly say, "Brother, I be your best friend."

These thi
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