JungKim (1) He can't go out after dark. In context, (1) is intended to mean that he is not allowed to go out after dark. We'll have to take your word for it about the context and the intention.
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JungKim(1) He can't go out after dark. In context, (1) is intended to mean that he is not allowed to go out after dark.We'll have to take your word for it about the context and the intention. You are the one who is imagining the context and the intention.
JungKim(2) He couldn't go out after dark until he was 17.Is it ever possible for
JungKimNow, having heard this from his husband, the wife tells her daughter, "He can't go out after dark."So far, so good. The wife is reporting what she heard and knows.
JungKimIn this instance, the wife is not necessarily imposing a ban on Mike's going out after dark but is simply relaying the outcome of the father's ban to her daug
CalifJimJungKimIf so, could this latter utterance be considered to be expressing permission as opposed to ability?Yes. What else? She's reporting the permission-statement of her husband. That doesn't change the meaning of "can't". It's still a matter of permission.The father's utterance "Mike can't go out after dark" can be glossed as "I won't allow Mike to g
JungKimThe father's utterance "Mike can't go out after dark" can be glossed as "I won't allow Mike to go out after dark."OK. Or "I forbid Mike to go out after dark", as you mention later.
JungKimBut the mother's utterance "He can't go out after dark" can be glossed either as an outcome meaning "He is not able to go out after dark (bec
CalifJimEach of these may, in the right scenario, have to do with the withholding of permission, not just the first.You can't go out tonight. (I forbid you.)He can't go out tonight. (Someone has forbidden him.)They can't go out tonight. (Someone has forbidden them.)I can't go out tonight. (And so on.)She couldn't go out last night.We couldn't go out last night.
JungKimeven in the first one, how do you know for sure if it's I, the speaker, that forbid you??I don't know for sure, so actually, you're right about that. It's ambiguous.
CalifJim It's ambiguous.If so, whenever someone uses a modal, we just can't assume that it's the speaker's opinion, can we?
JungKimIf so, whenever someone uses a modal, we just can't assume that it's the speaker's opinion, can we?"whenever" is like "always". It makes me uncomfortable. I'd say that there certainly are cases where we can't make such an assumption. But it seems to me that most of the time it's the speaker's opinion, if it's anybody's opinion at all.