Having run or having ran...must it be past perfect?

Question

When we say: having run short of options.

Run is past perfect. Does it mean whenever we start the sentence with having, the verb must be in past perfect sense? Such as: having driven the car, having risen to the occasion.

Avangi · Accepted Answer

"Run" is not in past perfect. "Having run" is in past perfect. NO

"Run" is simply the past participle. But, yes, "having" and the past participle are always used in the past perfect tense. NO

"Having," however, has other uses. "To have" is a transitive verb meaning "to possess."

"Having a good offense is often the best defense."

Edit. Wow, did I ***** up! These are participial phrases! (non-finite)

Past perfect would be, "He had run short of options and therefore decided to capitulate."

I suppose you'd say that "having run" is the perfect form of the present participle "running."

Running out of gas, they looked desperately for a filling station.

Having run out of gas, they began walking toward town.

Mister Micawber · Answer

Yes, 'having run' is a perfect participial phrase or non-finite clause.  I'd say that when you use 'having' as the perfect-aspect former, you'd always need the past participle (run, shown, etc).  And as Avangi says, 'have' has other uses, so as a main verb it would be 'having a good offense', etc.

Andriy Lapin · Answer

Dear Avangi and Anon,

Saying Having run short of options in isolation is impossible, since the structure itself is a non-finite complex verb phrase, so it asks for a finite clause, as in

Having run short of options, he decided to ask his friends for advice.

1. Run is past perfect. - Run is an ed-participle, so it cannot be marked for tense. English is an analytical language, so it cannot express perfective aspect within a single verb form - it requires an auxiliary (having, in this case). Therefore, it is most appropriate to say that having run is a perfective verb phrase; still, however, it is not to be characterised as past, since it still remains a non-finite participial.

2. Does it mean whenever we start the sentence with having, the verb must be in past perfect sense? Such as: having driven the car, having risen to the occasion. - You probably mean tense, not sense, but even this thinking is on the wrong track. As Avangi pointed out, having may also be a simple ing-participle with a monotransitive pattern, but it seems that you inquire about having as a purely auxiliary verb. The following sentences suit your question; each of them features a perfective verb phrase with additional progressive and passive components:

Having invited you, I expected you to come. <perfective>
Having been working all day long, I feel exhausted. <perfective + progressive>
Having been invited, he should have come by now. <perfective + passive>
+
Having been being examined, ... - <perfective + progressive + passive: theoretically possible, but extremely infrequent>

Avangi, I wouldn't fault your explanation - in fact, it is up to scratch

.

Respectfully, Gleb Chebrikoff

Avangi · Answer

Thanks, MrM, and Gleb.

Andriy Lapin · Answer

I'm glad this helped, Avangi. Ask anytime should you need assistance in linguistic matters.

Respectfully, Gleb Chebrikoff

CalifJim · Answer

AnonymousWhen we say: having run short of options.

Run is past perfect. Does it mean whenever we start the sentence with having, the verb must be in past perfect sense? Such as: having driven the car, having risen to the occasion.

Your terminology is a bit messed up, but others have already straightened you out on that.

Essentially, though, making allowances for your creative use of terminology, you are absolutely correct. Participial phrases beginning with the auxiliary having are followed by a past participle. Your examples are correct: having driven the car, having risen to the occasion.

(I think you already know that these phrases are not complete sentences.)

CJ

Having run or having ran...must it be past perfect?

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