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Seagull Posted 11 years ago
Grammar
having + past participle
Regarding the following two sentences:
(a) I'm sorry for calling you so late yesterday.
(b) I'm sorry for having called you so late yesterday.
Q1 I'm pretty sure that (a) is correct, but I don't think (b) is natural. Am I right?
Q2 I'm wondering why (b) is not natural. According to my grammar book, the form "having + past participle" is used when the speaker is referring to the action done before the "present moment." If that is the case, does it follow there is no problem with (b)? Please explain this, if you don't mind.
(a) I'm sorry for calling you so late yesterday.
(b) I'm sorry for having called you so late yesterday.
Q1 I'm pretty sure that (a) is correct, but I don't think (b) is natural. Am I right?
Q2 I'm wondering why (b) is not natural. According to my grammar book, the form "having + past participle" is used when the speaker is referring to the action done before the "present moment." If that is the case, does it follow there is no problem with (b)? Please explain this, if you don't mind.
Top answer
seagull Q1 I'm pretty sure that (a) is correct Right. seagull I don't think (b) is natural. I'm wondering why (b) is not natural.
- seagull Q1 I'm pretty sure that (a) is correct Right.
- seagull I don't think (b) is natural.
- I'm wondering why (b) is not natural.
- It's not very natural in conversation.
- It is correct, but it's somewhat literary and formal.
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2 Answers
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seagullQ1 I'm pretty sure that (a) is correctRight.
seagullI don't think (b) is natural. I'm wondering why (b) is not natural.It's not very natural in conversation. It is correct, but it's somewhat literary and formal.
CJ
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