Respected teachers,
Recently I have watched a speech on YouTube and heard the speaker say the following.
"But I might add that many countries have built railways and roads without having had to be colonialized in order to do so."
Wouldn't it be ok if it were just "without having to be colonized". I am not able to understand the purpose of "having had" there.
Could you please explain.
Thank you
anonymous Wouldn't it be ok if it were just "without having to be colonized". I am not able to understand the purpose of "having had" there. Yes, that's also OK.
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anonymousWouldn't it be ok if it were just "without having to be colonized". I am not able to understand the purpose of "having had" there.
Yes, that's also OK. 'having had to' is just 'having to' in perfect aspect. (Compare 'having wanted to' with 'wanting to'.) The perfect form may have been used to match the perfect aspect of 'have built'. It sounds