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Anonymous Posted 6 years ago
Grammar

Having had to be

Respected teachers,

Recently I have watched a speech on YouTube and heard the speaker say the following.

"But I might add that many countries have built railways and roads without having had to be colonialized in order to do so."

Wouldn't it be ok if it were just "without having to be colonized". I am not able to understand the purpose of "having had" there.

Could you please explain.

Thank you

  

Top answer

anonymous Wouldn't it be ok if it were just "without having to be colonized". I am not able to understand the purpose of "having had" there. Yes, that's also OK.

  • anonymous Wouldn't it be ok if it were just "without having to be colonized".
  • I am not able to understand the purpose of "having had" there.
  • Yes, that's also OK.
  • 'having had to' is just 'having to' in perfect aspect.
  • ) The perfect form may have been used to match the perfect aspect of 'have built'.
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1 Answers
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anonymousWouldn't it be ok if it were just "without having to be colonized". I am not able to understand the purpose of "having had" there.

Yes, that's also OK. 'having had to' is just 'having to' in perfect aspect. (Compare 'having wanted to' with 'wanting to'.) The perfect form may have been used to match the perfect aspect of 'have built'. It sounds

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