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Scw72 Posted 18 years ago
Grammar

haven't to vs. don't have to

0Hi all,02br
02br
00Is it possible that the negative form of "have to' would be "01b00haven't to02b00" or " 01b00have not to02b00" instead of "don't have to" ? 02br
02br
00Thanks for your help in advance!!02br
02br
00cw0-
  

Top answer

02br 00Yes, that is possible, but I think that only the contraction is accepted. 0-

  • 02br 00Yes, that is possible, but I think that only the contraction is accepted.
  • 0-
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5 Answers
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0 .02br
00Yes, that is possible, but I think that only the contraction is accepted. 0-
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It is NOT correct to say "I haven't to (do something)" to mean that you don't have to to something (the opposite of "have to"). Have not/haven't can only be used when talking about possessions (ex: I haven't any gum) or something that you didn't do (NOT something that you don't have to do), in the present perfect simple (ex: I haven't had breakfast yet today.)
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No, it is not possible. The negative of have to is like this:

I have to go. I don't have to go.
* I haven't to go. That is wrong.

In England, someone might say, "I haven't a penny." In the US, we don't say that at all. I don't have a penny.

When "have" is an auxiliary verb, you can use haven't.

They have gone. They haven't gone.
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Scw72"haven't to"
You can actually find this phrasing on the internet, often in older texts, but in modern English it's usually in posts by people like 'explodingheadboy' on sites like 'wackoworld', so you should be able to see from that bit of information that it's not really a good idea to use "haven't to".
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I agree that "haven't to" isn't anything usable.

But, Americans do say, "I haven't a clue." or, "I haven't an inkling," or, "I haven't the foggiest notion." Those are the only things I can think of off the top of my head where we use haven't without another verb, such as "I haven't got time to ...." There may be others, but nothing else is springing to mind.

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