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Fandorin Posted 18 years ago
Grammar

Have run

"William A. Bowles, a British captain turned pirate, is believed to have intentionally ran his ship aground on St. George Island."
It was borrowed from one topic. But question differents from that one. It sounds strange to me "..is believed to have run intentionally his ship.." What means construction with "have + V3"?
Is it right to say it without "have"?
  

Top answer

You are right. It should be "William A. Bowles, a British captain turned pirate, is believed to have intentionally ran run his ship aground on St.

— 26TMNTJG2PG

  • You are right.
  • It should be "William A.
  • Bowles, a British captain turned pirate, is believed to have intentionally ran run his ship aground on St.
  • " "Have run" is the present perfect tense showing the action of running having been completed.
  • "To have run" is the present perfect in the infinitive mood.
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3 Answers
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You are right. It should be "William A. Bowles, a British captain turned pirate, is believed to have intentionally ran run his ship aground on St. George Island."

"Have run" is the present perfect tense showing the action of running having been completed.

"To have run" is the present perfect in the infinitive mood.

To say it without "have" does not reflect th
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Yeah. I wrote my question wrong. I do know such construction of course.Emotion: big smile
And the action is in the Perfect Infinitive happens
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You are right again : the action is in the Perfect Infinitive happens before the main action.

Regards.
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