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Aoymee2 Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

have or has

[a brand name] eg. Zara has or have menswear.
Zara does or do...

I've always thought you have to treat any singular noun as a third person, so any verbs go after it has to ends with 's'.

but i've seen people used have,do first person verbs after a brand.
  

Top answer

aoymee2 I 've seen people used use 'have' and 'do' first person verbs after a brand. If the brand name is used to refer to the whole company, the plural can be used. This is much more common in British English.

— CalifJim

  • aoymee2 I 've seen people used use 'have' and 'do' first person verbs after a brand.
  • If the brand name is used to refer to the whole company, the plural can be used.
  • This is much more common in British English.
  • CJ
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1 Answers
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aoymee2 I've seen people used use 'have' and 'do' first person verbs after a brand.
If the brand name is used to refer to the whole company, the plural can be used. This is much more common in British English.

CJ
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