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Break Away Posted 20 years ago
Grammar
have or has?
More than one has/have been enough for us to do it
Which one is right?why?
Which one is right?why?
Top answer
As far as I know, both of them are correct. However, I personally use a singular form of the verb. Why?
- As far as I know, both of them are correct.
- However, I personally use a singular form of the verb.
- Why?
- I don't know, it's the same as everyone, everybody,...
- Everyone has/have enjoyed the party.
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4 Answers
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As far as I know, both of them are correct. However, I personally use a singular form of the verb. Why? I don't know, it's the same as everyone, everybody,... Everyone has/have enjoyed the party. I think it depends on how you look at it, wheather you mean each individual or the group of individulas!
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I use "have" because the subject means plural. But sometimes, we use "has" with subbjects meaning plural, for example: everything, everyone, information... etc.
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Break AwayMore than one has/have been enough for us to do itHello Break Away
Which one is right?why?
Can you provide a context for this sentence? It seems slightly strange to me.
MrP
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Hi BreakAway,
As MrP mentioned, the context will help to get the right answer.In general, following are the rules to use 'more than one':
(1) "more than one" + "singular noun" takes a singular verb.
(E-x) More than one customer gets discount.
(2) "more than one" + "of"+ "plural noun" takes a plural verb.
(E-x) More than one of the problems
As MrP mentioned, the context will help to get the right answer.In general, following are the rules to use 'more than one':
(1) "more than one" + "singular noun" takes a singular verb.
(E-x) More than one customer gets discount.
(2) "more than one" + "of"+ "plural noun" takes a plural verb.
(E-x) More than one of the problems
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