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New2grammar Posted 18 years ago
Grammar

have had

0I have had him leashed. (As I understand, it means I have told someone to leash him and he's now leashed).02br
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00Below is a paragraph from a news article.02br
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01i01b00I've had a lot of books written about me02b00. When someone compares your daughter to Rosemary's baby -- it's one thing to come after me. Say stuff about me," he said. "But when it comes to my family, my children, that's when I went, 'This is off the chart.' "02i02br
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00The bolded sentence means he has hired someone to publish books about him - the order came from him and he didn't write them himself. 02br
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00Is my interpretation of the bolded statement correct?02br
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00Thanks!0-
  

Top answer

0No, it means that 01b 00people have written books about him02b 00, mainly not at his request or desire. 0-

  • 0No, it means that 01b 00people have written books about him02b 00, mainly not at his request or desire.
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3 Answers
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0No, it means that 01b00people have written books about him02b00, mainly not at his request or desire. 0-
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0Good guess, but this is not the causative 01i00have02i00; it's the experiential 01i00have02i00.02br
00He has gone through the experience of seeing that a lot of books were written about him.02br
00Sometimes only context disambiguates the two. The following could be either type of 01i00have02i00. 02b
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0Thanks CJ and MH. CJ, your explanation is great. It's very clear now. I totally agree with you that in some cases there is ambiguity and only the context will straighten it out but only if we, learners, understand the context. So sometimes, things can get pretty messy. Thanks again.0-

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