”? Because 'the problem has solved' is not a possible formation. Problems are solved by people; they do not solve themselves.
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Stenka25Can you tell me why the author used the “have been p.p” in place of “be p.p.”?Because 'the problem has solved' is not a possible formation. Problems are solved by people; they do not solve themselves. 'Solved' is a transitive verb.
Stenka25I'm asking why "the problem has not been solved" is used, in place of "the problem is not solved."The writer is evidently more considered with the action (or failure of action) than the condition.
Stenka25Is there any specific purpose for this differentiation of tenses?You could have all three with the same tense, either present or present perfect, so it's the author's choice. To my ear, the last one is changed to the present perfect to say ... and the problem (therefore / as a result) ends up not being solved, in other words to call att