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English 1b3 Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

'have been'

I have been to London.

Is this an idiomatic use of 'have been', since have been can't be used in the simple present and give the same meaning: I am to London.

Thanks
  

Top answer

Yes. It is roughly equivalent to 'have gone'.

— Mister Micawber

  • Yes.
  • It is roughly equivalent to 'have gone'.
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1 Answers
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Yes. It is roughly equivalent to 'have gone'.
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