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Anonymous Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Have become, why not have became?

Hello all,

This grammer issue has been confusing me and I'd like to have it answered .

(Of course I'm not a native english speaker).

When using the word 'have' as a tense in english we would say the verb in a past tense (something that has been already done), for example:

I have done my homework.

have you done your homework?

have you managed to ...?

'done' 'managed', the 'to do' verb is in the past, to 'come' is also a 'to do' verb isn't it? so why do you say 'have you come' and not 'have you came'.

Thanks in advance

Yair
  

Top answer

Your understanding seems confused. I don't know what you mean by a 'to do' verb. The present perfect verb form consists of the present forms of the auxiliary 'have' (have, has) + the past participle form of the main verb ( not the past form).

— Mister Micawber

  • Your understanding seems confused.
  • I don't know what you mean by a 'to do' verb.
  • The present perfect verb form consists of the present forms of the auxiliary 'have' (have, has) + the past participle form of the main verb ( not the past form).
  • The declension of the verb 'come' is come (present)/ came (past) / come (past participle).
  • Eat/ate/eaten-- Have you eaten ?
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1 Answers
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Your understanding seems confused. I don't know what you mean by a 'to do' verb.

The present perfect verb form consists of the present forms of the auxiliary 'have' (have, has) + the past participle form of the main verb (not the past form). The declension of the verb 'come' is come (present)/ came (past) / come (past participle).

Eat/ate/eat
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