have and had

Question

hello. I just want to ask a question about have and had because im a little confused.for example: he had been good to us.he has been good to us.which one is correct?

Fivejedjon · Accepted Answer

Both are correct in the right contexts.

AlpheccaStars · Answer

Anonymoushe had been good to us.he has been good to us.which one is correct?

Neither one is correct. Sentences must begin with a capital letter. If you fix this error, both would be correct.

CalifJim · Answer

AnonymousWhich one is correct?

Both are correct grammatically, but in a specific context, one of them may correctly express what you mean, and the other one, not.

AnonymousHe had been good to us. He has been good to us.

X = the present moment; when you say the sentence
R = a reference time in the past

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - has been good - - - - - ]X
- - - - - - had been good - - - ]R ......................................X

In the diagram for "has been good" we see that he continues to be good up to the present.

In the diagram for "had been good" nothing was said, so nothing is known, about whether he was good after the reference point R. The unknown period is designated with dots, thus: ........................... In using this tense, which is a "dependent" tense, you usually have to establish the reference point R with a sentence or two first. Only then does it make sense to use this tense.

CJ

have and had

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