" No. "had" takes the object "an ideal of ease", and this object is further modified by a relative clause beginning with 'which'. Inside this relative clause there is a causative construction with "make".
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park sang joonI'd like to know if "seem formal and stiff" is the objective complement of "had."No. "had" takes the object "an ideal of ease", and this object is further modified by a relative clause beginning with 'which'. Inside this relative clause there is a causative construction with "make".
park sang joon"Have" is a causative verb too, so I think "have" can take "seem" as an objective complement.But 'have' is not used in the causative pattern here. It's a simple possessive 'have'. Besides, a causative construction can't span the boundary of a relative clause.
park sang joonAnd I can't understand why they have an ideal o
park sang joon1. I had my hair [to which chewing gum is stuck] cut. If I can't have the object modified by a relative clause as #1Though the sentence is awkward, the grammar is fine. You can modify the object with a relative clause. I don't know where you got the idea that this was wrong. But nothing within the relative clause is part of a causative
Besides, a causative construction can't span the boundary of a
park sang joona causative construction can't span the boundary of a relative clause.You can't take "seem formal and stiff" as part of a causative construction with "had" because it's already inside the relative clause which modifies "an ideal ease". I showed this in my previous post.
park sang joonHow about "ease made the existence of the middle-classes"?I can't seem to assign any meaning to that. To make something is always to bring it into existence, so "the existence" doesn't make sense there. More sensible grammatically is Ease made the middle classes; however, it's still semantically problematic. How does ease