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Anonymous Posted 9 years ago
Vocabulary

Have

Had "have", used in perfect tenses, been always not semantic in English language?

  

Top answer

I don't know exactly what you are asking, but these forms have existed since Old English. You can refer to this article. On the basis of an extensive analysis of HAVE + past participle constructions in Old and Middle English corpora ( The York-Toronto-Helsinki Parsed Corpus of Old English Prose and Penn-Helsinki Parsed Corpus of Middle English, Second Edition ), the development of aspectual and relative tense meaning constructions will be demonstrated.

  • I don't know exactly what you are asking, but these forms have existed since Old English.
  • You can refer to this article.
  • On the basis of an extensive analysis of HAVE + past participle constructions in Old and Middle English corpora ( The York-Toronto-Helsinki Parsed Corpus of Old English Prose and Penn-Helsinki Parsed Corpus of Middle English, Second Edition ), the development of aspectual and relative tense meaning constructions will be demonstrated.
  • Frequency of occurrence of different meaning constructions will be compared to contemporary evidence found in Modern English corpora.
  • Thus the basic aim of this paper is to provide an overview of the development of meaning constructions that we find in Modern English present perfect.
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2 Answers
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I don't know exactly what you are asking, but these forms have existed since Old English.

You can refer to this article.

On the basis of an extensive analysis of HAVE + past participle constructions in Old and Middle English corpora (The York-Toronto-Helsinki Parsed Corpus of Old English Prose and Penn-Helsinki Parsed Corpus of Middle English, Second Edition

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Thank you, AS, for the excellent explanation and the link.

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