Had "have", used in perfect tenses, been always not semantic in English language?
I don't know exactly what you are asking, but these forms have existed since Old English. You can refer to this article. On the basis of an extensive analysis of HAVE + past participle constructions in Old and Middle English corpora ( The York-Toronto-Helsinki Parsed Corpus of Old English Prose and Penn-Helsinki Parsed Corpus of Middle English, Second Edition ), the development of aspectual and relative tense meaning constructions will be demonstrated.
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I don't know exactly what you are asking, but these forms have existed since Old English.
You can refer to this article.
On the basis of an extensive analysis of HAVE + past participle constructions in Old and Middle English corpora (The York-Toronto-Helsinki Parsed Corpus of Old English Prose and Penn-Helsinki Parsed Corpus of Middle English, Second Edition