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KottCoos Posted 14 years ago
Grammar
Hath vs has
I got some friend and he states the the form "has" originates from the ancient one "hath". There's some trust on this point (because of it being official) but a doubt on it at presence too. Taking off from this doubt I think it's possible to have the form "has" as the reduction of "haves" as a varinat of its origination.
Top answer
E. Gmc. *haben- (cf.
- E.
- Gmc.
- *haben- (cf.
- N.
- S.
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2 Answers
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I cannot imagine why this is of any importance to your English, but:
O.E. habban "to own, possess; be subject to, experience," from P.Gmc. *haben- (cf. O.N. hafa, O.S. hebbjan, O.Fris. habba, Ger. haben, Goth. haban "to have"), from PIE*kap- "to grasp". O.E. second person singular present hæfst, third person singular present hæfð became M.E. hast, hath, while O.E. -b
O.E. habban "to own, possess; be subject to, experience," from P.Gmc. *haben- (cf. O.N. hafa, O.S. hebbjan, O.Fris. habba, Ger. haben, Goth. haban "to have"), from PIE*kap- "to grasp". O.E. second person singular present hæfst, third person singular present hæfð became M.E. hast, hath, while O.E. -b
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