Has/Have

Your verb form depends on whether you think of Westpac as a group of people running a company (BrE) or as as single-person legal fiction (AmE).

"Westpac" is not a pronoun. It's a name, so it's a proper noun. As for person, you tell me:

Is Westpac making the statement about itself, say, in a press release? (1st)
Is Westpac being addressed, say, by an angry shareholder at the

All proper nouns are grammatically the third person.

O Lord! Preserve us.

Is Westpac making the statement about itself, say, in a press release? (1st)
Westpac has not lost any money in the last year.
Is Westpac being addressed, say, by an angry shareholder at the annual meeting? (2nd)
Why hasn't Westpac released the data for the last 6 months?
Or is Westpac being spoken about? (3rd)
Has Westpac made any changes yet?

Is this right?

T

I asked first. Try answering my questions. Yes or no will do in each case.

"Westpac" is not a pronoun. It's a name, so it's a proper noun. As for person, you tell me:

Is Westpac making the statement about itself, say, in a press release? (1st)
Yes
Is Westpac being addressed, say, by an angry shareholder at the annual meeting?(2nd)

Or is Westpac being spoken about? (3rd)

To my original question, I would say yes to your first sentence. Ho

Let's remember the original statement:

Westpac has not lost any clients

Westpac is not speaking on its own behalf. If it were, the statement would say something like "We, the Westpac Board of Directors, are pleased to announce that we have not lost any clients.

"Westpac is not being spoken to." If it were, the statement would say something

Sorry deadrat... I am a little bit confused now.

Are you saying that it should be: Westpac have not lost any clients? This is incorrect "Westpac has not lost any clients".

What if I ask this way: Has Westpac lost any clients?

Thanks

If you regard Westpac as a single entity, the use the singular "has"; if you regard Westpac as a group of individuals, use the plural "have."