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Anonymous Posted 18 years ago
Grammar
has to be, have to be
0 hi. I was on google and getting some conflicting results with the following. I think the first option is correct. Am I right? 02 br
02 br
00 There have to be changes made 02 br
02 br
00 There has to be changes made 02 br
02 br
00 Thanks 0-
02 br
00 There have to be changes made 02 br
02 br
00 There has to be changes made 02 br
02 br
00 Thanks 0-
Top answer
0 I would say "There have to be changes made". 0-
- 0 I would say "There have to be changes made".
- 0-
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5 Answers
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0 I agree with Mr. Wordy, but I would be hard pressed to defend my position. 0-
00
0 Agreement in a 01 i 00 there 02 i 00 construction is between the verb and the following noun. 02 br
01 i 00 There 01 b 00 have 02 b 00 to be change 01 b 00 s 02 b 00 made. 02 i 02 br
02 br
00 CJ 0-
01 i 00 There 01 b 00 have 02 b 00 to be change 01 b 00 s 02 b 00 made. 02 i 02 br
02 br
00 CJ 0-
00
1 blockquote
01 cite 10 CalifJim 12 cite 10 Agreement in a 11 i 10 there 12 i 10 construction is between the verb and the following noun. 12 br
12 br
11 i 10 There 11 b 10 have 12 b 10 to be change 11 b 10 s 12 b 10 made. 12 i 12 br
12 br
10 CJ 12 br
12 br
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0 The language seems to be undergoing a change in the agreement rules for 01 i 00 there 02 i 00 constructions. 02 br
00 In casual speech the singular verb seems to satisfy many people, no matter what follows! (Compare 01 i 00 hay 02 i 00 in Spanish -- 01 i 00 there is/are 02 i 00 -- always singular.) 02 br
02 br
00 I'm g
00 In casual speech the singular verb seems to satisfy many people, no matter what follows! (Compare 01 i 00 hay 02 i 00 in Spanish -- 01 i 00 there is/are 02 i 00 -- always singular.) 02 br
02 br
00 I'm g
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