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Lucas21c Posted 11 years ago
Grammar

'has rained' vs 'has been raining'

Could you tell me what the difference is between (A) and (B) in the following sentence? If one is more preferred or common, which one is it? Thank you.

It has [ (A) rained / (B) been raining ] for three days.
  

Top answer

A. ” Meaning: During the last three days it has rained – not necessarily continuously, but every day there was some rain. B.

— Wilpeter

  • A.
  • ” Meaning: During the last three days it has rained – not necessarily continuously, but every day there was some rain.
  • B.
  • ” Meaning: For the last three days it has rained continuously.
  • Both are equally common – in areas where rain is common, anyway.
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5 Answers
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A. “It has rained for three days.”
Meaning: During the last three days it has rained – not necessarily continuously, but every day there was some rain.
B. “It has been raining for three days.”
Meaning: For the last three days it has rained continuously.
Both are equally common – in areas where rain is common, anyway.
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lucas21cmore preferred or common
For an activity (and raining counts as an activity) the 'been -ing' form is your best bet with a "for"-phrase.

It has been raining for three days.
We have been driving this car for 10 years.
The kids have been playing computer games for three hours.

Either continuous or intermitten
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Queen Elizabeth II has reigned for sixty-two years, non-stop.
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wilpeterQueen Elizabeth II has reigned for sixty-two years, non-stop.
Interesting example. "to reign" is one of those verbs like "to live". It's not exactly an activity. "to reign" is almost stative: "to hold a position". Often these borderline verbs can go either way, continuous or not.

CJ
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It has been raining for three days
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