Has proved incapable of vs. has proved to be incapable of

Question

Hello,

Is it correct to say "the system has proved incapable of reform"? Or should one say "the system has proved to be incapable of reform"? Or maybe both phrases are wrong?

I'd appreciate any help.

Clive · Accepted Answer

Hi,

Is it correct to say "the system has proved incapable of reform"? Or should one say "the system has proved to be incapable of reform"? Or maybe both phrases are wrong?

Both sound OK. However, I find the meaning here ambiguous. Do you mean the system is incapable of receiving the reform, or of performing the reform? eg

The public cannot reform the health system or The health system cannot reform the public (eg in their attitude to nutrition or exercise)

If the former, a clearer sentence would be the system has proved (to be)incapable of being reformed.

Best wishes, Clive

Eager-to-learn · Answer

Clive However, I find the meaning here ambiguous. Do you mean the system is incapable of receiving the reform, or of performing the reform?

Thanks for your reply, Clive.

I think the phrase was supposed to mean that the system was resistant to change (or reform), i.e., say, the health system in Xland could meet the challenges of the times, while the health system of Yland could not adapt, proved incapable of reform (and, say, should therefore be considered fundamentally flawed). Would the use of the underlined phrase be correct in this context?

Thanks again.

Clive · Answer

Hi again,

Well, if you said incapable of reform in the right context, I'd understand. But I still see the system has proved incapable of being reformed as a better and non-ambiguous way to express this.

Clive

Eager-to-learn · Answer

Hi, Clive,

Thanks a lot.

Nik

Has proved incapable of vs. has proved to be incapable of

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