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Anonymous Posted 12 years ago
Grammar
Has got vs has gotten
I am a native English speaker from England. I read an article from the American website "people.com". In the article there were two usages of the phrase "has gotten" which I felt didn't naturally fit into the sentence.
"[he] has gotten treatment for an alcohol problem" and "LaBeouf has gotten attention". I would have used 'he has had' or, more formally 'he has received'
Is this an example of a difference between British and American English, an example of an archaic use of the verb "to get" or me being grammatically incorrect?
"[he] has gotten treatment for an alcohol problem" and "LaBeouf has gotten attention". I would have used 'he has had' or, more formally 'he has received'
Is this an example of a difference between British and American English, an example of an archaic use of the verb "to get" or me being grammatically incorrect?
Top answer
This is a difference between British and American English. The gotten form was once used in British English, but has now largely disappeared. It is still alive and well in the US.
- This is a difference between British and American English.
- The gotten form was once used in British English, but has now largely disappeared.
- It is still alive and well in the US.
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2 Answers
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This is a difference between British and American English. The gotten form was once used in British English, but has now largely disappeared. It is still alive and well in the US.
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AnonymousIs this an example of a difference between British and American English,Yes, it is.
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