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Anonymous Posted 18 years ago
Grammar

"Has gone to" in AmEng.

Hi

CNN:

Quote:
"Let me ask you this, though, Scott. As a practical matter, hasn't the independent prosecution been something of a failure? What do we have? They spent $ 40 million. We have Ollie for security fence which he shouldn't have taken, convicted on that, convicted of deceiving Congress. Nobody has gone to jail."

In AmEng, does "nobody has gone to jail" mean "nobody is in jail" in a context such as the above?

Quote:
MARK JOHNSON "Well, I think that for him to compare Saudi Arabia to Iraq is a little bit unfair to the Saudis. It's perhaps like comparing a delinquent to a serial murderer. I fully agree that Iraq is not the only barbarous regime in the world or the region, but the difference is that in the case of Iraq we had an evil regime which was on the march. Iraq has gone to war twice now in the last decade, first against Iran and then against Kuwait, and I think most Americans now realize that if we hadn't moved to stop Iraq now, we would inevitably been obligated to stop Iraq later, but under circumstances where Baghdad would have been much more difficult and dangerous to deal with than it is at present."

In AmEng, could "have gone to war twice" be used even if the country is no longer at war or not presently planning to go to war?
  

Top answer

Anonymous In AmEng, does "nobody has gone to jail" mean "nobody is in jail" in a context such as the above? It means no one has been convicted and sent to jail (as of the date this statement was made). No one is (yet) in jail over these wrong-doings.

  • Anonymous In AmEng, does "nobody has gone to jail" mean "nobody is in jail" in a context such as the above?
  • It means no one has been convicted and sent to jail (as of the date this statement was made).
  • No one is (yet) in jail over these wrong-doings.
  • Anonymous In AmEng, could "have gone to war twice" be used even if the country is no longer at war or not presently planning to go to war?
  • Using the present perfect (has gone) leaves open the possibility that they will go to war again.
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8 Answers
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AnonymousIn AmEng, does "nobody has gone to jail" mean "nobody is in jail" in a context such as the above?

It means no one has been convicted and sent to jail (as of the date this statement was made). No one is (yet) in jail over these wrong-doings.

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<They have gone to war twice in the decade - it's possible they may do so again.>

And what would be the difference in meaning in AmEng between that and this?

They have been to war twice in the decade.
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Ah.

I think of a nation as something that has "gone" to war, and a solider is someone who has "been" to war.

You're much better as searches than I am.

What does it say for "gone to war" vs. "been to war."
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AnonymousIn AmEng, does "nobody has gone to jail" mean "nobody is in jail" in a context such as the above?
Not exactly. ... is in jail is about the current state of affairs. ... has gone to jail is about the experience of being put in jail. It's "Nobody is in this state just now" vs. "Nobody has had this experience up until now".
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<Yes. Certainly. It's the same as I have had my skull broken twice in the last 120 years, where my skull is not broken now and I have javascript:void(0) to have it broken again. >

I see. So what's the difference in meaning, etc, between "they've gone to war twice in the last decade" and "they've been to war twice in the last decade", in AmEn
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Anonymouswhat's the difference in meaning, etc, between "they've gone to war twice in the last decade" and "they've been to war twice in the last decade", in AmEng?
None, really, as I would accept been for gone, but gone seems more idiomatic in AmE (to my ear). It seems to me we use the idiom with been mostly for individuals' visit
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CalifJim
Anonymouswhat's the difference in meaning, etc, between "they've gone to war twice in the last decade" and "they've been to war twice in the last decade", in AmEng?
None, really, as I would accept been for gone, but gone seems more idiomatic in AmE (to my ear). It seems to me we use the idiom with been
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AnonymousHave you any ideas about when and why that "has/have gone to" form developed in AmEng?
Why do you see it as a development in AmE, old chap? As opposed to e.g. an older usage, from which BrE has diverged?

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