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Niue Posted 16 years ago
Grammar
• has finished vs. will have finished
Hi!
I read the following grammar question in a TOEIC book:
“108. Mrs. Flaubert ______ all of her work by , so there is no reason she needs to work overtime.
A. has finished
B. is finishing
C. will have finished
D. has been finishing
(Answer: C)” ((Longman Preparation Series for the New TOEIC Test, Advanced Course, 4th Edition, p. 300))
Let me explain why A can NOT be the correct answer:
1. You CAN say “Mrs. Flaubert finished all of her work at , so there is no reason she needs to work overtime.” when you speak the sentence AFTER
2. You CAN say “Mrs. Flaubert has finished all of her work now, so there is no reason she needs to work overtime.” when you speak the sentence AT
3. You can NOT say “Mrs. Flaubert has finished all of her work by , so there is no reason she needs to work overtime.” when you speak the sentence AFTER or AT
4. You MUST say “Mrs. Flaubert will have finished (or will finish) all of her work by , so there is no reason she needs to work overtime.” when you speak the sentence BEFORE
Thus, there is NO case in which you can say “Mrs. Flaubert has finished all of her work by , so there is no reason she needs to work overtime.”
What do you think of my explanation?
Do you agree with me?
Thanks in advance.
I read the following grammar question in a TOEIC book:
“108. Mrs. Flaubert ______ all of her work by , so there is no reason she needs to work overtime.
A. has finished
B. is finishing
C. will have finished
D. has been finishing
(Answer: C)” ((Longman Preparation Series for the New TOEIC Test, Advanced Course, 4th Edition, p. 300))
Let me explain why A can NOT be the correct answer:
1. You CAN say “Mrs. Flaubert finished all of her work at , so there is no reason she needs to work overtime.” when you speak the sentence AFTER
2. You CAN say “Mrs. Flaubert has finished all of her work now, so there is no reason she needs to work overtime.” when you speak the sentence AT
3. You can NOT say “Mrs. Flaubert has finished all of her work by , so there is no reason she needs to work overtime.” when you speak the sentence AFTER or AT
4. You MUST say “Mrs. Flaubert will have finished (or will finish) all of her work by , so there is no reason she needs to work overtime.” when you speak the sentence BEFORE
Thus, there is NO case in which you can say “Mrs. Flaubert has finished all of her work by , so there is no reason she needs to work overtime.”
What do you think of my explanation?
Do you agree with me?
Thanks in advance.
Top answer
Niue Mrs. , so there is no reason she needs to work overtime. I personally think this question needs to be reworded as it seems not a very good example to show the use of future perfect, if it is the answer.
- Niue Mrs.
- , so there is no reason she needs to work overtime.
- I personally think this question needs to be reworded as it seems not a very good example to show the use of future perfect, if it is the answer.
- " in relationship to "will have finished".
- t.
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1 Answers
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NiueMrs. Flaubert ______ all of her work by 5:00 P.M., so there is no reason she needs to work overtime.I personally think this question needs to be reworded as it seems not a very good example to show the use of future perfect, if it is the answer. The problem I have is with "so there is no reason..." in relationship to "will have fin
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