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Df2006 Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

HAS BEEN and HAD BEEN in participle phrase

In trying to combine two sentences into one, I have come up with two possibilities:

(1.1) He has been poorly treated. He resigned. ""(a present perfect sentence and a simple present sentence)[/COLOR][/I]

(1.2) Having been poorly treated, he resigns. ""(present participle modifying a simple present sentence)[/COLOR][/I]

(2.1) He had been poorly treated. He resigned. [COLOR="Blue"](a past perfect sentence and a simple past sentence)[/COLOR][/I]

(2.1) Having been poorly treated, he resigned. ""(present participle phrase modifying a simple past sentence)[/COLOR][/I]

My questions are:

(A) are both (1.1) and (2.1) are correctly structured sentences?

(B) if so, does it mean that both 'present perfect' and 'past perfect' share the same form when they are to be changed into participle phrase? (i.e. ""'Having been poorly treated'[/I][/COLOR])

Thank you very much for any input!
  

Top answer

Warning: I'm not english native speaker. I see those all valid, but I would say: He has been poorly treated, so in consequence, he resigned. Take in count that 'had' refers to the past, instead, 'has' refers to the present, thus, you will choose between them basing on if "he has been poorly treated" recently, or long time ago.

  • Warning: I'm not english native speaker.
  • I see those all valid, but I would say: He has been poorly treated, so in consequence, he resigned.
  • Take in count that 'had' refers to the past, instead, 'has' refers to the present, thus, you will choose between them basing on if "he has been poorly treated" recently, or long time ago.
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1 Answers
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Warning: I'm not english native speaker.

I see those all valid, but I would say:

He has been poorly treated, so in consequence, he resigned.

Take in count that 'had' refers to the past, instead, 'has' refers to the present, thus, you will choose between them basing on if "he has been poorly treated" recently, or long time ago.

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