Has as a general verb and causative verb
(1) The restaurant has a lot of customers stand in line every lunch time
(2) The restaurant has a lot of customers standing in line every lunch time
I know for the fact that the verb has in sentence (1) functions as a causative verb like make or let. But, how about the one in sentence (2)? I am not so sure. I think the verb has in sentence (2) is not a causative verb but functions as a general verb with standing as a modifier. Could you help me clarify it? Thank you.
Top answer
In your second example, "has" is used in its possessive sense. Incidentally, your first example strikes me as unnatural. A more felicitous use of causative "has" might be The restaurant has a lot of its customers stand in line every lunchtime.
- In your second example, "has" is used in its possessive sense.
- Incidentally, your first example strikes me as unnatural.
- A more felicitous use of causative "has" might be The restaurant has a lot of its customers stand in line every lunchtime.
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In your second example, "has" is used in its possessive sense.
Incidentally, your first example strikes me as unnatural. A more felicitous use of causative "has" might be The restaurant has a lot of its customers stand in line every lunchtime.
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