0
Anonymous Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Has

Hi,

"Instead of clutching at excuses like too much snow in winter and too much sun in the spring, George Osborne needs to realise he only has himself to blame for the choices he made a year ago." [From The Independent.]

Is the verb 'has', in the sentence, a part of the obligation construction "have to blame" or is it an ordinary verb?

Thank you.
  

Top answer

Hi, No, it is just an ordinary use of the verb, in the sense of 'possession'. Clive

  • Hi, No, it is just an ordinary use of the verb, in the sense of 'possession'.
  • Clive
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

2 Answers
0
Hi,

No, it is just an ordinary use of the verb, in the sense of 'possession'.

Clive
0
Thank you, Clive, for your useful reply.

Related Questions