"Instead of clutching at excuses like too much snow in winter and too much sun in the spring, George Osborne needs to realise he only has himself to blame for the choices he made a year ago." [From The Independent.]
Is the verb 'has', in the sentence, a part of the obligation construction "have to blame" or is it an ordinary verb?
Thank you.
Top answer
Hi, No, it is just an ordinary use of the verb, in the sense of 'possession'. Clive
— Clive
Hi, No, it is just an ordinary use of the verb, in the sense of 'possession'.
Clive
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