Had just had was...???

Question

I just e-mailed a friend and I wrote this sentense: "... and I asked the woman if the food I had just had was like it's in China". Is it right? I'd be glad if anyone would answer me.

Nona the brit · Accepted Answer

For reasons that are entirely beyond me, it is not correct to shorten it is to it's in that sentence. If you stick to the full 'it is', then it's fine!

Babujee · Answer

I think it's can stand for it is and it has.

Nona the brit · Answer

That is very true. However, in the example given, only it is makes sense.

Lulla · Answer

Yes, I meant IT IS.

Wow, my sentense was right!!

Woooohoooo!!!

CalifJim · Answer

In linguistics there are a number of ways of explaining when contractions like "it's" are 'forbidden'. Usually it has to do with cases where there is a gap created by a 'movement transformation'.
For example, "I wonder what time it is", not "I wonder what time it's", because the deep structure is

I wonder it is what time.

To form the grammatical "I wonder what time it is", the "what time" is moved closer to the beginning of the sentence, leaving a gap:

I wonder what time it is _______ (The gap contained "what time" before it was moved.)

In the sentence which begins this thread I believe the deep structure contains "it is like the food in China". The gap occurs through ellipsis, i.e., the omission of "like the food". Because "it is" is followed by this gap, it is not permitted to contract it to "it's".

I realize this explanation is not exactly correct, so maybe someone else more familiar with the transformational approach can elucidate further.

CJ

Had just had was...???

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