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Firefly Posted 20 years ago
Grammar

had have had

0 OK - consider this sentence:02br
00 If I'd have had the money I would have bought it.02br
02br
00 Here in the UK, that would be a perfectly reasonable sentence, and so far as I know, grammatically correct. "I'd" is short for "I had", so "I'd have had" expands to "I had have had". I've been hearing, using, and reading, this construction for decades, and no-one's questioned it until now.02br
02br
00 Now an American tells me that "had have had" is wrong. If I had to guess, I'd guess that they were looking for "If I'd had" instead of "If I'd have had".02br
02br
00 Google certainly confirms that I'm not alone in my use of "had have had". The question is, can this usage be backed up in any formal reference? Or is my American friend right, and I've been getting it wrong for nearly half a century? 02br
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Top answer

12br 12br 10Here in the UK, that would be a perfectly reasonable sentence, and so far as I know, grammatically correct. "I'd" is short for "I had", so "I'd have had" expands to "I had have had". 12br 12br 10Now an American tells me that "had have had" is wrong.

  • 12br 12br 10Here in the UK, that would be a perfectly reasonable sentence, and so far as I know, grammatically correct.
  • "I'd" is short for "I had", so "I'd have had" expands to "I had have had".
  • 12br 12br 10Now an American tells me that "had have had" is wrong.
  • 12br 12br 10Google certainly confirms that I'm not alone in my use of "had have had".
  • The question is, can this usage be backed up in any formal reference?
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48 Answers
0
0 01blockquote
01cite10Firefly12cite10OK - consider this sentence:12br
10If I'd have had the money I would have bought it.12br
12br
10Here in the UK, that would be a perfectly reasonable sentence, and so far as I know, grammatically correct. "I'd" is short for "I had", so "I'd have had" expands to "I had have had". I've
0
0Spelling it out as had have had looks odd but when I think about it is normal use in the UK, albeit usually shortened to I'd have had.I agree that had had would work just as well. Perhaps it is just a British verbal quirk then?02br
02br
00The only time you would say it in full is if you wanted to really make a point by emphasising the first 'had'. If you HAD have had bubonic
0
0 The 01i00'd02i00 is for 01i00would02i00, not for 01i00had02i00.02br
02br
00 If I would have had the money, I would have bought it.02br
02br
00 The contracted form is usually said 01i00If I'd've had the money,02i00 .... Many people get a little confused and wri
0
0 Hmmm. Now that's a different take on it, Nona.02br
00 So you guys say "had've had" for "had had"? Now that 01u00is02u00quirky! 05002br
00 Aren't you just substituting 'had' for 'would' there in the first 'had'?02br
00 Do you guys also prefer 'had' in this one: 01i00I had rather...02i00 instead of
0
0We do say had had as well. . confusing I know.02br
02br
00I guess it could be another 'had' or a 'would' depending on the rest of the sentence. I can't see my example working with would?02br
02br
00If you would have had bubonic plague...02br
02br
00I think that the 've contraction gets used a lot in the UK without any real thought abo
0
0Examples of had have had in UK useage - I've realised that the have is often shortened rather than the first had as well and it seems to be used in a negative situation. In the examples I found (and my example was as well without realising it) it always formed part of an 'if' phrase. It's a way of emphasising the 'if only' aspect.02br
02br
00if Harry Potter had've had that
0
0OMG, OMG. 05000 LOL. Reading all those01i00had've had02i00's got me to laughing. (Maybe that's not the reaction you expected?) To my American ear, they are actually funny sounding. My apologies, but they all sound as if spoken by some hillbilly hicks out in the boonies! (At least to me.) That is really amazing how different British and American usage
0
0They are a bit of a tongue twister when you look at them on the page like that.02br
02br
00I think it is one of those useages that crop up in speech more than in writing!0-
0
0 01blockquote
01cite10CalifJim12cite10The 11i10'd12i10 is for 11i10would12i10, not for 11i10had12i10.12blockquote
10 No it isn't.02br
02br
00 Grammatically speaking, 01i00would02i00 have had belongs on the THEN side of
0
0 Whoops, sorry. That anonymous post there was actually me. (I forgot to sign in).02br
02br
00 Anyway, I think that there is a difference, and that it's the difference between continuous and discrete. Simply put:02br
02br
00 "If I'd had the money" is the hypothetical equivalent of "I had money", whereas02br
00 "If I'd have had the money" is

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