Hi,
Loneliness had been affecting him for quite a while now.
Loneliness had affected him for quite a while now.
Since we're using quite a while now, does it mean only the first sentence is right?
Thanks.
anonymous Loneliness had been affecting him for quite a while now. Loneliness had affected him for quite a while now. Since we're using quite a while now, does it mean only the first sentence is right?
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anonymousLoneliness had been affecting him for quite a while now.
Loneliness had affected him for quite a while now.
Since we're using quite a while now, does it mean only the first sentence is right?
No. It doesn't mean that. "for quite a while now" makes them equivalent.
CJ