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Masoud Kakoli Posted 12 years ago
See the attachment for the rule. I was studying my grammar book that I came across this rule but something was strange for me. The first sentence is positive and the second is negative. If the positive verb in the first sentence is not fulfilled according to this rule and again the negative verb in the second sentence is not fulfilled. So isn't there something wrong with the rule or examples? So does had plus positive past participial mean that the verb was not fulfilled or had plus negative past participial of these verbs? Or both of them? Or it depends on the context? Or the verb "realize" is an exception?
Grammar
Had and non-fulfillment meaning
Grammar rule
See the attachment for the rule. I was studying my grammar book that I came across this rule but something was strange for me. The first sentence is positive and the second is negative. If the positive verb in the first sentence is not fulfilled according to this rule and again the negative verb in the second sentence is not fulfilled. So isn't there something wrong with the rule or examples? So does had plus positive past participial mean that the verb was not fulfilled or had plus negative past participial of these verbs? Or both of them? Or it depends on the context? Or the verb "realize" is an exception?
Top answer
I don't really agree with that explanation as far as "hope" is concerned. The tense alone does not necessarily mean that a hope was not fulfilled. " I don't understand the applicability of the statement to the second sentence with "realize".
- I don't really agree with that explanation as far as "hope" is concerned.
- The tense alone does not necessarily mean that a hope was not fulfilled.
- " I don't understand the applicability of the statement to the second sentence with "realize".
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4 Answers
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I don't really agree with that explanation as far as "hope" is concerned. The tense alone does not necessarily mean that a hope was not fulfilled. For example, "I had hoped to find him there, and I was not disappointed."
I don't understand the applicability of the statement to the second sentence with "realize".
I don't understand the applicability of the statement to the second sentence with "realize".
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Thanks for your reply.
What about other verbs? Do you agree with that explanation about other verbs? Or you are totally disagree with that grammar rule?
I am really sorry to ask these questions. I do not have the intention to insult you. I hope cultural differences do not make misunderstanding but are you a native speaker of English? Are you a teacher of English?
What about other verbs? Do you agree with that explanation about other verbs? Or you are totally disagree with that grammar rule?
I am really sorry to ask these questions. I do not have the intention to insult you. I hope cultural differences do not make misunderstanding but are you a native speaker of English? Are you a teacher of English?
00
I think that the other verbs mentioned, apart from "realise", behave similarly to "hope" in this respect. They might often be unfulfilled when used in this pattern, but not always. It is necessary to look at the whole context. For example:
"I had planned to go swimming, but it was too cold."
"I had planned it to down to the last detail, and it worked out exactly as I had intended."
"I had planned to go swimming, but it was too cold."
"I had planned it to down to the last detail, and it worked out exactly as I had intended."
00
I am totally agree with you. I am a native speaker of Persian. When I translated these sentences literally into Persian, the other verbs, apart from realize, fits that grammar rule. That's why I decided to post it here. It seems that this form is very similar to the Persian form, even I think it is identical.
So we can conclude that it depends on the context other than the verb "realiz
So we can conclude that it depends on the context other than the verb "realiz
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