Grr. I don't get these infinitive phrases!

Question

I don't understand infinitives!?"I want her to go""I forced him to cook"In all these sentences, "her to go" and "him to cook" are infinitive phrases acting as direct object. But then someone told me "him/her" are direct objects, and the infinitives are object complements. HUH?However, I still don't understand this one."I made him happy""He makes me feel happy"In the first example, "happy" is the object complement. And "feel happy" in the second example is also an object complement? I don't get it!

AlpheccaStars · Accepted Answer

BlackBlitz"I want her to go"
"I forced him to cook"
In all these sentences, "her to go" and "him to cook" are infinitive phrases acting as direct object.

The pronouns are the subject of the infinitive.
Gerunds and infinitives can have subjects, objects and modifiers!
That's why they are called verbals. Here is an example with a gerund.

I objected to her (subject of gerund) smoking (gerund) cigars (direct object) in my office (adverbial prep. phrase).

BlackBlitz"I made him happy"
"He makes me feel happy"

In an older form of English, "make" was followed by the infinitive.
For example,
He makes me to lie down in green pastures. (King James Bible)

The present day speech is an evolution of the very common verb "make". The dictionary gives its synonym as:
"to cause to be"

It is clearer when we use the synonym:
He caused me to be happy.
He causes me to feel happy.

You can treat these in the same manner as "I forced him to cook."
Professional lingusts probably have a special description of this grammar, but it is peculiar to the verb.

CalifJim · Answer

It seems you are asking advice from a number of different people. Each of them has had some training in a slightly different form of sentence analysis.

There are many methods of analyzing the grammar of a sentence. Some people have learned one way; some, another. So you're bound to get different opinions about the "correct" terminology to use in any given case.

I would say that verbs like want and force take a sentential complement, i.e., a clause with a non-finite verb. Thus her and him are the subjects of non-finite clauses below:

I want [ her to go ].
I forced [ him to cook ].

It is quite common for the subject of a complementary non-finite clause to be in the objective case.
___

There really isn't much difference between the examples above and these

I made [ her happy ].
I made [ her become happy ].

I made [ her feel happy ].
I caused [ her to become happy ].
I wanted [ her to be happy ].

The same principles apply, but in some cases either the to of the infinitive or (in the first of the group) the whole infinitive is left out.
___
Note, however, that none of this makes any difference if you are enrolled in a class where you need to use the terminology being presented in that class. Ask your teacher for guidance in the analyses if that's the case.

CJ

AlpheccaStars · Answer

CalifJimThere are many methods of analyzing the grammar of a sentence.

There seems to be more lingo than linguists. Even the classic text"Elements of Style"which has been used in college-level classes for 50 years, is now under fire for its "stupid grammar"

But, Jim, I always admire your answers.

BlackBlitz · Answer

"I made [her (to be) happy]"

So this means that "her(to be) happy" is a noun infinitive. So I'm guessing that "happy" is not a object complement?

Oh, I have a really stupid question here.

"I saw them kissing"
"Taking the book, I looked for a dictionary"

I know that "kissing" and "taking the book" are all adjectives. But I'm wondering what exactly is an adjective? I read that Adjectival clauses and prep. phrases modify the noun by answering "Which one". But none of the examples here seem to do so. =S

Avangi · Answer

An adjective modifies a noun in any conceivable way by answering any conceivable question.

The thing about the question "which one?" was used in a discussion about prepositional phrases, which seemed to modify both the verb and the subject. In a group of questions, where, when, how, why, which; which would best apply to the noun (or the adjective modifying it.)

Avangi · Answer

BlackBlitz "I saw them kissing"
"Taking the book, I looked for a dictionary"

I know that "kissing" and "taking the book" are all adjectives. The participial phrase "taking the book" is adjectival because it tells us something about the pronoun "I."

The present participal "kissing" functions as an adjective because it tells us something about the pronoun "them."

Avangi · Answer

CalifJim I would say that verbs like want and force take a sentential complement, i.e., a clause with a non-finite verb.

Hi, Jim.

We're not excluding noun complements here, are we?

CalifJim · Answer

AvangiWe're not excluding noun complements here, are we?

Certainly not. Revise the statement, if you wish, to may take a sentential complement.

CJ

CalifJim · Answer

AlpheccaStarsEven the classic text "Elements of Style"which has been used in college-level classes for 50 years, is now under fire for its "stupid grammar"

Whew! Strong words. I almost said "invective". Unlike Mr. Pullum (whom I would not like to meet in a dark alley!), I'm not willing to go to the cross on some of these issues.

CJ

CalifJim · Answer

BlackBlitzSo I'm guessing that "happy" is not a object complement?

That's not what I meant. I'm guessing that "object complement" may actually be a good description within some analytical systems.

CJ

Grr. I don't get these infinitive phrases!

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