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Anonymous Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

Grammar quaetion

We use the third form of verb with has/have like: "He has done that"

then why we use first form of verb in this sentence : "he has not come yet"?
  

Top answer

Hi, We use the third form of verb with has/have like: "He has done that" then why we use first form of verb in this sentence : "he has not come yet"? You are dealing with irregular verbs. 'Done' and 'come' are both past participles.

— Clive

  • Hi, We use the third form of verb with has/have like: "He has done that" then why we use first form of verb in this sentence : "he has not come yet"?
  • You are dealing with irregular verbs.
  • 'Done' and 'come' are both past participles.
  • Clive
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2 Answers
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Hi,

We use the third form of verb with has/have like: "He has done that"

then why we use first form of verb in this sentence : "he has not come yet"?

You are dealing with irregular verbs.

'Done' and 'come' are both past participles.

Clive
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Anonymousthen why we use first form of verb in this sentence : "he has not come yet"?
There's no rule that says the third form can't be the same as the first form.

come - came - come
run - ran - run

Sometimes all three forms are the same!

put - put - put

Review your irregular verbs.

CJ
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